A 46-year-old woman with no significant medical history presents with a 3-month history of diarrhoea, abdominal pain and unintentional weight loss. Co...

Question

A 46-year-old woman with no significant medical history presents with a 3-month history of diarrhoea, abdominal pain and unintentional weight loss. Colonoscopy shows continuous inflammation from the rectum to the sigmoid colon with friable mucosa. Biopsies confirm ulcerative colitis. What is the most appropriate first-line therapy for mild left-sided disease?

Accepted Answer

Topical (rectal) 5-ASA therapy, with or without oral 5-ASA

Answer

Oral 5-aminosalicylic acid (5-ASA) alone

Answer

Systemic corticosteroids as monotherapy

Answer

Anti-TNF biologic therapy as first-line

Answer

No treatment; observation only

ca-mccqe1 MCQ (SBA): Ulcerative colitis - mild left-sided