A 49 year old man is diagnosed with a proximal deep vein thrombosis of the leg. He has no cancer, normal renal function and no contraindications to an...

Question

A 49 year old man is diagnosed with a proximal deep vein thrombosis of the leg. He has no cancer, normal renal function and no contraindications to anticoagulation. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial and long term anticoagulant strategy?

Accepted Answer

Start a direct oral anticoagulant such as apixaban

Answer

Start warfarin alone without bridging

Answer

Start low molecular weight heparin alone for 3 months

Answer

Inferior vena cava filter without anticoagulation

Answer

Aspirin alone

au-racp MCQ (SBA): DVT treatment with DOAC

A 49 year old man is diagnosed with a proximal deep vein thrombosis of the leg. He has no cancer, normal renal function and no contraindications to anticoagulation. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial and long term anticoagulant strategy?