A 34-year-old woman presents with secondary amenorrhoea, galactorrhoea and headache. Prolactin is significantly elevated and MRI shows a 1.5 cm pituit...

Question

A 34-year-old woman presents with secondary amenorrhoea, galactorrhoea and headache. Prolactin is significantly elevated and MRI shows a 1.5 cm pituitary adenoma. According to prolactinoma management principles, what is the first-line treatment?

Accepted Answer

Dopamine agonist such as cabergoline

Answer

Trans-sphenoidal surgery

Answer

Radiotherapy to the pituitary

Answer

High-dose oestrogen therapy

Answer

Watchful waiting

ca-mccqe1 MCQ (SBA): Prolactinoma

A 34-year-old woman presents with secondary amenorrhoea, galactorrhoea and headache. Prolactin is significantly elevated and MRI shows a 1.5 cm pituitary adenoma. According to prolactinoma management principles, what is the first-line treatment?