A 52-year-old woman is found to have iron deficiency anaemia due to menorrhagia. Hb is 96 g/L and ferritin is 6 µg/L. There is no evidence of gastrointestinal blood loss. Which is the most appropriate initial iron replacement strategy?AIntravenous iron infusion immediately for all patientsBOral ferrous iron daily (or alternate daily) for at least 3 months after normalisation of HbCDietary modification aloneDTransfusion of red cells to correct anaemiaEOral iron for 1 week onlyCheck my answer