Question

A 64-year-old man presents with a 20-minute episode of left arm weakness and slurred speech that completely resolved. CT brain is normal. He has hypertension and diabetes. His ABCD2 score is 5. According to guideline-based practice, what is the most appropriate management?

Accepted Answer

Admit to hospital or rapid-access TIA clinic for urgent assessment and commencement of secondary prevention

Answer

Reassure and arrange routine outpatient review in 4 weeks

Answer

Start low-dose aspirin and discharge without further work-up

Answer

Start oral anticoagulation immediately without further investigation

Answer

No further action is required because symptoms resolved

Practice question

A 64-year-old man presents with a 20-minute episode of left arm weakness and slurred speech that completely resolved. CT brain is normal. He has hypertension and diabetes. His ABCD2 score is 5. According to guideline-based practice, what is the most appropriate management?