A 45-year-old man presents with painful, swollen first metatarsophalangeal joint after a large meat and alcohol intake. Joint aspirate shows needle-shaped, negatively birefringent crystals. Which is the most appropriate acute treatment?AStart allopurinol immediately and stop once pain resolvesBPrescribe NSAIDs (if no contraindication) or colchicine for acute attack and delay urate-lowering therapy initiation until flare resolvesCStart chronic low-dose prednisone as long-term therapyDAdvise rest only; no pharmacologic therapy is indicatedEStart probenecid immediately without anti-inflammatory agentsCheck my answer