A 40‑year‑old man presents with an acutely swollen, erythematous and very tender first metatarsophalangeal joint. He is afebrile and has no systemic s...

Question

A 40‑year‑old man presents with an acutely swollen, erythematous and very tender first metatarsophalangeal joint. He is afebrile and has no systemic symptoms. Joint aspirate confirms monosodium urate crystals. According to Therapeutic Guidelines, what is the most appropriate acute pharmacological management?

Accepted Answer

Commence colchicine or NSAID therapy for the acute attack

Answer

Start allopurinol immediately and titrate dose

Answer

Begin long‑term low‑dose prednisolone

Answer

Start probenecid

Answer

Use opioid analgesia only and avoid anti‑inflammatories

au-amc MCQ (SBA): Acute gout