A 68-year-old man develops a painful swollen left calf after a long-haul flight. Ultrasound confirms a proximal deep vein thrombosis. He has no active...

Question

A 68-year-old man develops a painful swollen left calf after a long-haul flight. Ultrasound confirms a proximal deep vein thrombosis. He has no active cancer, normal renal function and no contraindications to anticoagulation. According to Australian VTE management guidelines, what is the preferred initial antithrombotic strategy?

Accepted Answer

Direct oral factor Xa inhibitor monotherapy (e.g. apixaban or rivaroxaban)

Answer

Warfarin alone with no heparin overlap

Answer

Low molecular weight heparin followed by warfarin

Answer

Aspirin alone

Answer

No anticoagulation; early mobilisation only

au-amc MCQ (SBA): Deep vein thrombosis