Practice question

Answer the question and get instant feedback.

EasyPsychiatryMajor depressive disorderau-racgpau-amc

A 32-year-old woman presents to her GP with a 3-month history of low mood, anhedonia, poor sleep and impaired concentration. She has no history of mania or psychosis and denies substance misuse. There is no active suicidal intent, and physical examination is unremarkable. What is the most appropriate first-line pharmacological option?

Practice more on iatroX

Educational content. Not a substitute for clinical judgement or local policy.