A 40-year-old woman with schizophrenia treated with risperidone presents with 3 months of galactorrhoea and amenorrhoea. Pregnancy test is negative. P...

Question

A 40-year-old woman with schizophrenia treated with risperidone presents with 3 months of galactorrhoea and amenorrhoea. Pregnancy test is negative. Prolactin is markedly elevated. What is the MOST appropriate next step?

Accepted Answer

Stop risperidone and switch to a prolactin-sparing antipsychotic such as aripiprazole after psychiatric review

Answer

Start bromocriptine while continuing risperidone

Answer

Reassure her that this is harmless and continue current regimen

Answer

Stop all antipsychotic treatment immediately

Answer

Start combined oral contraceptive to regulate menses

ca-mccqe1 MCQ (SBA): Antipsychotic-induced hyperprolactinaemia

A 40-year-old woman with schizophrenia treated with risperidone presents with 3 months of galactorrhoea and amenorrhoea. Pregnancy test is negative. Prolactin is markedly elevated. What is the MOST appropriate next step?