Question

A 32-year-old woman with known relapsing-remitting multiple sclerosis presents with new onset unilateral limb weakness and sensory changes consistent with a relapse. There is no infection. What is the most appropriate acute treatment?

Accepted Answer

High-dose IV or oral corticosteroids

Answer

Long-term antibiotics

Answer

Start interferon-beta only

Answer

No treatment; all relapses remit fully without therapy

Answer

Immediate plasmapheresis in all relapses

Practice question

A 32-year-old woman with known relapsing-remitting multiple sclerosis presents with new onset unilateral limb weakness and sensory changes consistent with a relapse. There is no infection. What is the most appropriate acute treatment?