A 58-year-old man presents with an acutely swollen, red, painful first metatarsophalangeal joint. He has known hyperuricaemia. There is no sepsis or trauma. What is the most appropriate first-line treatment for this acute gout flare?AStart allopurinol immediately and stop when pain resolvesBHigh-dose NSAID such as indomethacin, if no contraindicationsCLong-term low-dose colchicine onlyDOral prednisone must always be usedEAntibiotics for presumed septic arthritisCheck my answer