A 58-year-old man presents with an acutely swollen, red, painful first metatarsophalangeal joint. He has known hyperuricaemia. There is no sepsis or t...

Question

A 58-year-old man presents with an acutely swollen, red, painful first metatarsophalangeal joint. He has known hyperuricaemia. There is no sepsis or trauma. What is the most appropriate first-line treatment for this acute gout flare?

Accepted Answer

High-dose NSAID such as indomethacin, if no contraindications

Answer

Start allopurinol immediately and stop when pain resolves

Answer

Long-term low-dose colchicine only

Answer

Oral prednisone must always be used

Answer

Antibiotics for presumed septic arthritis

au-amc MCQ (SBA): Acute gout

A 58-year-old man presents with an acutely swollen, red, painful first metatarsophalangeal joint. He has known hyperuricaemia. There is no sepsis or trauma. What is the most appropriate first-line treatment for this acute gout flare?