A 42-year-old man with a long history of injecting drug use presents with a 3-week history of low-grade fever, malaise and new exertional dyspnoea. Ex...

Question

A 42-year-old man with a long history of injecting drug use presents with a 3-week history of low-grade fever, malaise and new exertional dyspnoea. Examination reveals a new pansystolic murmur at the apex and splinter haemorrhages. What is the most appropriate next investigation?

Accepted Answer

Transthoracic echocardiogram

Answer

CT coronary angiography

Answer

Exercise stress test

Answer

Abdominal ultrasound

Answer

Non-contrast CT brain

au-amc MCQ (SBA): Infective endocarditis

A 42-year-old man with a long history of injecting drug use presents with a 3-week history of low-grade fever, malaise and new exertional dyspnoea. Examination reveals a new pansystolic murmur at the apex and splinter haemorrhages. What is the most appropriate next investigation?