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MediumCardiologyInfective endocarditisau-amcau-racp

A 42-year-old man with a long history of injecting drug use presents with a 3-week history of low-grade fever, malaise and new exertional dyspnoea. Examination reveals a new pansystolic murmur at the apex and splinter haemorrhages. What is the most appropriate next investigation?

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