A 42-year-old man presents to his GP with a 3-month history of low mood, anhedonia, poor concentration and insomnia. He denies suicidality, psychotic ...

Question

A 42-year-old man presents to his GP with a 3-month history of low mood, anhedonia, poor concentration and insomnia. He denies suicidality, psychotic symptoms or substance misuse. There are no medical comorbidities. What is the most appropriate initial management?

Accepted Answer

Initiate a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor and arrange psychological therapy

Answer

Start a benzodiazepine as monotherapy

Answer

Refer immediately for electroconvulsive therapy

Answer

No treatment; symptoms will resolve spontaneously

Answer

Start a tricyclic antidepressant as first-line

au-amc MCQ (SBA): Major depressive disorder

A 42-year-old man presents to his GP with a 3-month history of low mood, anhedonia, poor concentration and insomnia. He denies suicidality, psychotic symptoms or substance misuse. There are no medical comorbidities. What is the most appropriate initial management?