A 50-year-old man presents with thunderclap headache to the ED. Initial noncontrast CT head within 1 hour of onset is negative. He remains neurologica...

Question

A 50-year-old man presents with thunderclap headache to the ED. Initial noncontrast CT head within 1 hour of onset is negative. He remains neurologically intact. Next best step to assess for SAH if suspicion remains high?

Accepted Answer

CT angiography or lumbar puncture to evaluate further

Answer

Discharge; negative CT rules out SAH at any time

Answer

Empiric migraine therapy only

Answer

MRI brain without contrast only

Answer

Start anticoagulation for suspected venous thrombosis

us-abem MCQ (SBA): Subarachnoid Hemorrhage Evaluation

A 50-year-old man presents with thunderclap headache to the ED. Initial noncontrast CT head within 1 hour of onset is negative. He remains neurologically intact. Next best step to assess for SAH if suspicion remains high?