Question

A 70-year-old with AF and prior GI bleed (now resolved) has CHA2DS2-VASc=5 and HAS-BLED=2. What is the recommended strategy?

Accepted Answer

Resume anticoagulation after addressing bleeding risk; consider DOAC with lower GI bleeding risk

Answer

Avoid anticoagulation due to prior bleed

Answer

Aspirin alone is adequate

Answer

DAPT instead of anticoagulation

Answer

Left atrial appendage occlusion for all

Practice question

A 70-year-old with AF and prior GI bleed (now resolved) has CHA2DS2-VASc=5 and HAS-BLED=2. What is the recommended strategy?