Question

A 60-year-old man with suspected acute type A aortic dissection presents with tearing chest pain and BP 182/98 mm Hg. What is the most appropriate immediate pharmacologic step while arranging definitive management?

Accepted Answer

Start IV esmolol to target HR <60/min

Answer

then add vasodilator if needed

Answer

Start IV nitroprusside alone to rapidly lower SBP <120 mm Hg

Answer

Give high-dose IV hydralazine

Answer

Begin dual antiplatelet therapy with aspirin and clopidogrel

Practice question

A 60-year-old man with suspected acute type A aortic dissection presents with tearing chest pain and BP 182/98 mm Hg. What is the most appropriate immediate pharmacologic step while arranging definitive management?