A 60-year-old man with AF and prior stroke (CHA₂DS₂-VASc=5) asks about left atrial appendage occlusion instead of OAC due to GI bleeding risk. What is accurate?APercutaneous LAAO is reasonable for patients with AF at increased stroke risk who have contraindication to long-term OACBLAAO is first-line for all AF patientsCLAAO eliminates need for any antithrombotic therapyDLAAO is contraindicated in prior GI bleedEAspirin alone is superior to OACCheck my answer