A 72-year-old presents with bilateral pitting oedema, orthopnoea, and basal crackles. NT-proBNP is elevated. What is an appropriate first-line pharmac...

Question

A 72-year-old presents with bilateral pitting oedema, orthopnoea, and basal crackles. NT-proBNP is elevated. What is an appropriate first-line pharmacological treatment?

Accepted Answer

Loop diuretic (e.g., furosemide)

Answer

Verapamil

Answer

Diltiazem

Answer

Amiodarone

Answer

Amlodipine

mrcgp akt MCQ (SBA): Heart Failure

A 72-year-old presents with bilateral pitting oedema, orthopnoea, and basal crackles. NT-proBNP is elevated. What is an appropriate first-line pharmacological treatment?