Practice question

Answer the question and get instant feedback.

EasyCardiologyHeart Failuremrcgp aktmrcp part 1ukmlapane

A 72-year-old presents with bilateral pitting oedema, orthopnoea, and basal crackles. NT-proBNP is elevated. What is an appropriate first-line pharmacological treatment?

Educational content. Not a substitute for clinical judgement or local policy.