ukmla MCQ (SBA): Primary hypertension

Instant feedback + full explanation. One question, done properly.

A 48-year-old White British man with newly diagnosed stage-1 hypertension (clinic BP 152/94 mmHg; ABPM average 148/92 mmHg) and no compelling comorbidities asks about first-line drug therapy. What is the most appropriate initial treatment?

Educational content. Not a substitute for clinical judgement or local policy.

ukmla MCQ: Primary hypertension — Answer & Explanation | iatroX