Question

A 34-year-old man presents with a 2-day history of sudden onset severe headache, described as 'thunderclap'. He has no focal neurological deficit. CT head is performed 6 hours after onset and is reported as normal. What is the most appropriate next step in management?

Accepted Answer

Perform lumbar puncture for xanthochromia

Answer

Discharge home with analgesia

Answer

Arrange MRI brain

Answer

Start empirical treatment for migraine

Answer

Repeat CT head in 24 hours

Practice question

A 34-year-old man presents with a 2-day history of sudden onset severe headache, described as 'thunderclap'. He has no focal neurological deficit. CT head is performed 6 hours after onset and is reported as normal. What is the most appropriate next step in management?