A 42-year-old man requires anticoagulation for an unprovoked deep vein thrombosis (DVT). He has no significant comorbidities and renal function is nor...

Question

A 42-year-old man requires anticoagulation for an unprovoked deep vein thrombosis (DVT). He has no significant comorbidities and renal function is normal. According to NICE NG158, which of the following is generally preferred as first-line long-term anticoagulation after initial treatment?

Accepted Answer

Apixaban for 6 months

Answer

Warfarin for 6 months

Answer

Low molecular weight heparin (LMWH) for 6 months

Answer

Aspirin for 6 months

Answer

Rivaroxaban indefinitely

ukmla MCQ (SBA): Deep Vein Thrombosis (DVT) Treatment

A 42-year-old man requires anticoagulation for an unprovoked deep vein thrombosis (DVT). He has no significant comorbidities and renal function is normal. According to NICE NG158, which of the following is generally preferred as first-line long-term anticoagulation after initial treatment?