A 40-year-old woman presents with heavy menstrual bleeding (HMB). She describes flooding and passing large clots, impacting her quality of life. She uses combined oral contraceptive pills (COCP) for contraception, which she does not want to stop. Investigations including FBC, coagulation screen, and thyroid function are normal. Pelvic examination is unremarkable. Transvaginal ultrasound shows a normal uterus and ovaries. According to NICE NG88, what is the most appropriate next management step, assuming pharmacological treatment is desired?