Practice question

A 72-year-old woman with known heart failure (NYHA Class II) presents with worsening shortness of breath and bilateral ankle swelling over the past week. Her current medications include Ramipril 10mg OD, Bisoprolol 5mg OD, and Furosemide 40mg OD. Examination reveals pitting oedema up to the mid-shin, bibasal crackles, and a JVP elevated to 5 cm. Her observations are stable. According to NICE guidelines, what is the most appropriate next step in managing her fluid overload?