Question

A 52-year-old man with type 2 diabetes has a severely painful foot ulcer with extensive necrosis and poor arterial flow. Despite revascularization attempts, osteomyelitis persists. What is the most appropriate definitive step in management?

Accepted Answer

Below-knee amputation

Answer

Intravenous antibiotics alone

Answer

Continued offloading and local wound care

Answer

Minor amputation (toe or forefoot)

Answer

Hyperbaric oxygen therapy

Practice question

A 52-year-old man with type 2 diabetes has a severely painful foot ulcer with extensive necrosis and poor arterial flow. Despite revascularization attempts, osteomyelitis persists. What is the most appropriate definitive step in management?