A 45-year-old with type 2 diabetes presents for a review. His current HbA1c is 65 mmol/mol (8.1%). He is on metformin monotherapy. According to NICE, ...

Question

A 45-year-old with type 2 diabetes presents for a review. His current HbA1c is 65 mmol/mol (8.1%). He is on metformin monotherapy. According to NICE, which is the next pharmacological step to improve glycaemic control?

Accepted Answer

Add a sulfonylurea (e.g. gliclazide)

Answer

Add insulin immediately

Answer

Stop metformin and switch to SGLT2 inhibitor

Answer

Begin orlistat

Answer

Lifestyle changes only

NICE Type 2 Diabetes Guideline MCQ (SBA): Type 2 Diabetes

A 45-year-old with type 2 diabetes presents for a review. His current HbA1c is 65 mmol/mol (8.1%). He is on metformin monotherapy. According to NICE, which is the next pharmacological step to improve glycaemic control?