Question

A 60-year-old woman with type 2 diabetes presents with persistent hyperglycaemia (HbA1c 8.5%) despite lifestyle modifications and metformin monotherapy. Her BMI is 32 kg/m². What is the most appropriate next step in management?

Accepted Answer

Add or switch to a GLP-1 receptor agonist

Answer

Add a sulfonylurea

Answer

Insulin therapy immediately

Answer

Begin a DPP-4 inhibitor plus sulfonylurea

Answer

Discontinue metformin

Practice question

A 60-year-old woman with type 2 diabetes presents with persistent hyperglycaemia (HbA1c 8.5%) despite lifestyle modifications and metformin monotherapy. Her BMI is 32 kg/m². What is the most appropriate next step in management?