A 55-year-old obese patient presents with acanthosis nigricans, hypertension, and dyslipidaemia. Blood tests reveal elevated fasting blood glucose and...

Question

A 55-year-old obese patient presents with acanthosis nigricans, hypertension, and dyslipidaemia. Blood tests reveal elevated fasting blood glucose and insulin levels. What is the most likely underlying pathophysiological mechanism?

Accepted Answer

Peripheral insulin resistance leading to compensatory hyperinsulinaemia

Answer

Insufficient insulin production

Answer

Excess hepatic glucose production despite normal insulin

Answer

Autoimmune destruction of pancreatic beta-cells

Answer

Glucose transporter deficiency

MCQ (SBA): Endocrinology & Diabetes

A 55-year-old obese patient presents with acanthosis nigricans, hypertension, and dyslipidaemia. Blood tests reveal elevated fasting blood glucose and insulin levels. What is the most likely underlying pathophysiological mechanism?