Question

A 40-year-old woman presents with palpitations. She is found to be in atrial fibrillation with a CHA₂DS₂-VASc score of 1 (female sex being the only risk factor). What is the best management step?

Accepted Answer

No anticoagulation required

Answer

Start warfarin

Answer

Start dabigatran

Answer

Start low-dose aspirin

Answer

Start amiodarone

Practice question

A 40-year-old woman presents with palpitations. She is found to be in atrial fibrillation with a CHA₂DS₂-VASc score of 1 (female sex being the only risk factor). What is the best management step?