Question

A 60-year-old patient has been diagnosed with atrial fibrillation. He has a CHA2DS2-VASc score of 2 and no contraindications to anticoagulation. He is not currently anticoagulated. What is the most appropriate step in management to reduce stroke risk?

Accepted Answer

Warfarin or a DOAC

Answer

Aspirin

Answer

Dual antiplatelet therapy

Answer

Left atrial appendage occlusion

Answer

Rate control only with a beta-blocker

Practice question

A 60-year-old patient has been diagnosed with atrial fibrillation. He has a CHA2DS2-VASc score of 2 and no contraindications to anticoagulation. He is not currently anticoagulated. What is the most appropriate step in management to reduce stroke risk?