A 47-year-old man presents with acromegaly. His IGF-1 levels are elevated, and pituitary MRI confirms a growth hormone-secreting adenoma. He declines ...

Question

A 47-year-old man presents with acromegaly. His IGF-1 levels are elevated, and pituitary MRI confirms a growth hormone-secreting adenoma. He declines surgical intervention initially. Which medical therapy is recommended as a first-line option to reduce growth hormone levels?

Accepted Answer

Somatostatin analogue (e.g., octreotide)

Answer

Bromocriptine

Answer

Cabergoline

Answer

Beta-blockers

Answer

Metyrapone

ukmla MCQ (SBA): Acromegaly

A 47-year-old man presents with acromegaly. His IGF-1 levels are elevated, and pituitary MRI confirms a growth hormone-secreting adenoma. He declines surgical intervention initially. Which medical therapy is recommended as a first-line option to reduce growth hormone levels?