A 45-year-old man with no prior history presents with palpitations. Examination reveals an irregularly irregular pulse and an ECG confirms atrial fibr...

Question

A 45-year-old man with no prior history presents with palpitations. Examination reveals an irregularly irregular pulse and an ECG confirms atrial fibrillation. He has no structural heart disease and a CHA2DS2-VASc score of 0. What is the most appropriate initial management strategy?

Accepted Answer

Rate control with a beta-blocker

Answer

Immediate DC cardioversion

Answer

Warfarin initiation

Answer

Rhythm control with class IC antiarrhythmic

Answer

Start a direct oral anticoagulant (DOAC)

ukmla MCQ (SBA): Atrial Fibrillation

A 45-year-old man with no prior history presents with palpitations. Examination reveals an irregularly irregular pulse and an ECG confirms atrial fibrillation. He has no structural heart disease and a CHA2DS2-VASc score of 0. What is the most appropriate initial management strategy?